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To: DiogenesLamp
In the same manner it stands to reason that people in India buy more imported wine, spices, coffee, tea, fabric and other products than Americans.

Those were among the most imported products by value in the US in 1860 (sugar, liquor, cocoa, hides, sardines too). Those were the products the most tariffs would be paid on.

Cotton planters would be very fat and drunk (and aromatic) if they consumed as much as Northerners.

What does India have to do with anything?

233 posted on 09/11/2019 3:05:28 PM PDT by x
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To: x
What does India have to do with anything?

It was an analogy. India has a population about four times that of the US, so India is roughly akin to the North, and the US is roughly akin to the south, in terms of the ratios of their populations.

Clearly India does not purchase more of these various goods than the United States, so having a population four times larger does not automatically put money into their pockets to pay for imported goods.

The United States has money and so they buy imported goods.

In 1860, the South produced 73% of the exports, and it was those exports that actually paid for European goods. The North only produced 27% of the exports, so they could buy 27% of the European goods being imported.

Yes, this is a very simple way of looking at it, but it is roughly accurate.

You are trying to have me believe that the 20 million Northerners who only earned 27% of the income, were paying for the vast majority of the import goods.

You tell me they were getting the money through diffuse means, but which always end up somehow getting it out of Southern hands.

Yes, the North and South bought each others goods, and it was all a complex system, but ultimately the value created to purchase the European products had to come from the South at the rate of 73% of the total. (85% if you believe other sources.)

236 posted on 09/11/2019 3:17:49 PM PDT by DiogenesLamp ("of parents owing allegiance to no oither sovereignty.")
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