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To: Jim 0216

“However, it seems to me that the Louisiana Purchase involved a treaty, or agreement, with a foreign government to purchase territory adjacent to the United States. the Constitution empowers the President to make treaties.”

Does that work both ways? How about “a treaty, or agreement, with a foreign government” for them “to purchase”, say for instance:

Back in the day, the Northwest territory.

Today, Puerto Rico or better yet California.

I have my own view, I’m just wondering what others think.


384 posted on 07/10/2017 6:35:35 AM PDT by KrisKrinkle (Blessed be those who know the depth and breadth of their ignorance. Cursed be those who don't.)
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To: KrisKrinkle
Of course the U.S. government is not permitted to agree to sell a state. Constitutionally, the feds don't own a state. The Constitution defines the limits of federal power and that power does not reach to violating a state's constitutional sovereignty as confirmed by the Ninth and Tenth Amendments.

A territory is another matter. The U.S. government does own its territory and could sell it legally because such act is specifically allowed in the Constitution.

The Congress shall have Power to dispose of and make all needful Rules and Regulations respecting the Territory or other Property belonging to the United States --Art. IV, Sec. 3, Cl. 2

390 posted on 07/10/2017 11:19:21 AM PDT by Jim W N
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