“However, it seems to me that the Louisiana Purchase involved a treaty, or agreement, with a foreign government to purchase territory adjacent to the United States. the Constitution empowers the President to make treaties.”
Does that work both ways? How about “a treaty, or agreement, with a foreign government” for them “to purchase”, say for instance:
Back in the day, the Northwest territory.
Today, Puerto Rico or better yet California.
I have my own view, I’m just wondering what others think.
A territory is another matter. The U.S. government does own its territory and could sell it legally because such act is specifically allowed in the Constitution.
The Congress shall have Power to dispose of and make all needful Rules and Regulations respecting the Territory or other Property belonging to the United States --Art. IV, Sec. 3, Cl. 2