To: rickmichaels
Wouldn’t a woman raping a man require arousal on his part, and if so mean he was willing?
21 posted on
10/26/2016 1:18:37 PM PDT by
Sybeck1
(Remember that time the holier than nows caused the loss our 2nd ammendment?)
To: Sybeck1
No.
First, arousal does not mean consent Otherwise Dr. Kinsey's pedophiles had "consent" from infants.
Second, female-on-male rape does not require male arousal. She could be sticking things up his anus.
Sorry for the filthy details.
35 posted on
10/26/2016 2:04:58 PM PDT by
Mrs. Don-o
(There are some things that are so wrong, only an ethics professor could think they're right.)
To: Sybeck1
Nope. I have been aroused often and thought better of the situation and didn’t follow through.
Each time, I was proven correct, in my instincts.
Sleaze-0-ette Psycho...
46 posted on
10/26/2016 2:56:19 PM PDT by
Vendome
(Don't take life so seriously-you won't live through it anyway - "Enjoy Yourself" ala Louis Prima)
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