If the police had fired at the man as he was in the process of ramming cars and endangering lives then that would be one thing. But the police shot the man after he had left the stolen auto. He was unarmed and not a threat to anyone. What was the justification other than he was running away?
We don’t know but I’m more willing to wait for a thorough investigation. Ofc the police superintendent is trying to keep the mobs at bay, but I’m more interested in respecting the police officers on the scene who were trying to stop a ruthless, dangerous perp.
“He was unarmed and not a threat to anyone. “
How do we know that?
What was he going to do to ensure he got away?
Car Jack?
Home invasion?
Or go to the library for a quiet read?
In Texas, police can shoot a fleeing felon based on violent acts committed and the thugs immediate threat to the public.