Posted on 02/28/2016 3:53:01 PM PST by LS
We have discussed Rule 40 which says, I think, that a candidate must win a majority of delegates in 8 states to have his name put in nomination. You can't just win the state, right?
Do I have this right? So Iowa would NOT count for Cruz, but Nev. would count for Trump?
I forget, what were the splits in NH and SC?
It has happened. Look at roll calls in convention history.
Check your convention history. It has happened quite a bit.
That was why rule 40(b) was established in 2012. It restricts who delegates can vote for. It was intended to prevent a situation like in 2012 where Ron Paul delegates were able to make a sizable impact and voice dissent.
What do you say to post 18?
https://partners.nytimes.com/library/politics/camp/680809convention-gop-ra.html
Just as the Nixon forces had steadfastly contended during a week of maneuvering at this 29th Republican National Convention, the 55-year-old former Vice president, who was also the party’s nominee in 1960, proved to have the 667 votes needed for nomination “buttoned up.”
The first-ballot count, before the convention made the nomination unanimous, was as follows:
Nixon..............692
Rockefeller........277
Reagan.............182
Others.............182
Nixon needed 667 votes to get nominated, not 576 if those 182 votes for others had been spoiled ballots.
The rule was established in 2012, but it went into effect in 2016 (Ron Paul received around 10% of the delegates in 2012). So when the rules are written this year at the convention will go into effect for 2020. The rules are set for this year.
(Rule writing is one of the things that goes on at every convention in addition to the nomination.)
I’m not even sure that Reagan had 5 delegations (by 1976, you needed 5 delegations. Now it’s 8.)
182 votes, and so far as I know, 90% of them came from California.
This is the first year that a candidate must meet qualifications in order to be eligible to receive votes. It was designed to prevent a brokered convention.
Ironic.
It is THE rule 40
Thanks....I was wondering how they could make new rules about primaries after they occurred.
What are you talking about? In 1976, Reagan won 23 states in the primary season. Ford went into the convention just short of the votes needed to seal the nomination, and he barely won on the first ballot.
That’s what I thought.
+50 of the vote in 8 states is how it was explained to me. 30% win doesn’t count. The delegates count but not the 8 state requirement. I could be wrong.
The only thing I see in Rule 40 for not having 8 delegations would be the inability to make a nominating/seconding speech. Maybe you see something different.
Can GOP Party Bosses Rig the Rules to Keep Trump from Winning? You Bet! | Alternet | September 14, 2015
Threat of Brokered Convention Fuels GOP Rules Panel | RealClearPolitics | January 15, 2016
I meant 1968.
In 1968 there were a total of 12 primary contests. There was no rule of winning 5 to be eligible for nomination. That was another brokered convention with both Reagan and Rockerfeller wanting to block Nixon from winning, but neither man would support the other for the nomination.
They can’t change the rules for the convention, these rules were written and agreed upon by the 2012 convention.
They are set in stone for 2016, legally.
Those unnamed “party officials” are wrong.
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