Are you presuming the States are not also bound by the 1st-8th?
How do the Amendments I site pertain?
4th - “The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects...”
5th - “No person shall...be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.”
13th - “Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction.”
Whereas A1S8 specifically exempts Congress from imposing ANY ‘min. wage’, A1S10C1 “No State shall...pass any...Law impairing the Obligation of Contracts...”, IMO, drives the point home vs. States.
Lastly, again, IMO, the 16th is null/void as it contains no over-riding verbiage to the above Amendments; let alone requiring one to ‘voluntarily’ sign away their 4th/5th A. Rights in filing all tax returns (red flag anyone?).
Though, I’m just a simply educated serf reading plain English...Hope that waylays your confusion.
You consider that a minimum wage requirement constitutes involuntary servitude? Unreasonable search and seizure by the government? Deprivation of due process? That’s just plain bizarre. We’ll have a much better go at the prudential argument than your uh, minority interpretation.
And just exactly how does Art 1 Sect 8 specifically exempt Congress from imposing any minimum wage? (You put that in quotes, as if you’re quoting the Constitution, but plainly there’s no mention of minimum wage in the text.)
As to the 16th Amdt, even if there was some legal need to include redundant language for repeal, so what? Minimum wage requirements have nothing to do with income taxes.