Saw this earlier today:
“If Romney had won another 4% of the white vote he would be President. With the same number he would have needed 71% of the Hispanic vote to win. If you are the GOP which is more likely?”
Can anyone verify?
If true, Trump can afford to alienate the Hispanic vote in favor of trading off for a larger chunk of the white vote.
Regardless, Trump isn’t saying it because it’s politically expedient, most likely to get him elected. He’s saying it because it’s what he thinks.
"Saw this earlier today:If Romney had won another 4% of the white vote he would be President. With the same number he would have needed 71% of the Hispanic vote to win. If you are the GOP which is more likely?
Can anyone verify?"
No. Someone is using the most elementary math to get that.
Electoral Popular Obama 332 65,915,796 51.1% Romeny 206 60,933,500 47.2%
You see what they did? They just added 4% to Romney and arrived at 51.2 %. But they got that wrong too! They should have said taken away 2% of Obama's votes which would net the desired 4%.
But ... even that is still all wrong because you need to get those votes in a bunch of key States to change the electoral total. Ask your friend to tackle these two maps, particularly the 2nd one ...
2008
DingelBarry = 365
McCain = 173
This is what everybody should be looking at, particularly all the Trump haters. Gaze upon that map and tell us what purple states the 16 other candidates are going to flip: MI, PA, WI, IN, IA, OH, FL, NC. Also consider CO, VA, NM, NV. Those twelve are the ballgame. And I am having a hard time seeing how any of those other guys can touch more than one or two of them.
NOTE-1: Romney only managed to flip two of them: IN and NC for 26 electoral votes.
NOTE-2: The rest of the electoral difference McCain 173 versus Romney 206 came from redistricting from the 2010 census where "blue" states mostly lost electoral votes and "red" states mostly gained. That 2012 electoral distribution map is the one that is in use today.