Aside from 14 female claiming he assaulted them over the years, why do you leave out the settlement to one of them?
Also, why are you calling assault in 2004 to being reported to police, to civil settlement in 2006, outside of a reasonable time frame?
Again with quantity.
Would it have been more or less believable if 1000 women came forward (none of them with evidence), all seeking money?
Did ANY of those women obtain medical evidence immediately after the event? I understand that trama will prevent SOME women from going to the emergency room. But ALL of them???
And again with the JUICY assumption that settlement = guilt. Have you considered:
settlement = far cheaper legal remedy.
settlement = protection of public image
settlement = less trauma to his family
And I am to believe that ALL 14 of these women sold their pride and not a ONE decided to do what was right?