The answer to your question depends on one’s point of view. Here is what Jesus said about it: “You heard me say to you, ‘I go away, and I will come to you.’ If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I.” (John 14:28 RSV)
God, by definition, is immutable, unchangeable, eternal (outside of time) and simple (no parts). God can’t “process” stuff because that would violate eternity. God can’t “feel” stuff either. God and His will are one and the same. So the ? doesn’t make any sense.
The man Jesus died.. The Son of God was God and did not die. Jesus was man of very man and God of very God. We can not understand this in our human minds but the Son who is God in the Trinity did not die.
The classical answer to your question, and really the only satisfactory answer if one holds anything like the Orthodox understanding of God, is that God, in His Divine Essence, is impassible — only the Son, by virtue of His assumption of our human nature in the hypostatic union can properly be described as suffering, grieving, or otherwise exhibiting emotion (a human, rather than a divine quality).
I have serious doubts you have the slightest notion of how absurd your query is.
You are asking finite humans like yourself to apprehend the mind of an infinite God. The definition of folly if there ever was one.
If you wish to amuse God, tell him of your plans.
he way I see it, the real grief came from the first-time-ever separation between God the Father and God the Son due to Jesus taking on sin for the first time. On the cross, He cried out, asking why His Father had forsaken Him. Sin separates us from the Father and Jesus had just experienced sin at a really extreme level - all sins, past/present/future - talk about a giant crowbar rending them apart. Caused them both more grief than ever before and probably ever again.
To complicate things, while God is three Persons, the three Persons each fully possess the single nature of God. This is a deep mystery. But we can know from this fact that where one Person acts, all three act, even though Scripture may speak of one specific Person acting in various passages.
So, where did the game, “three-card monte” come from?