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To: wideawake

Actual voting by slaves had nothing to do with it, though it should have.

It was completely for the purposes of representation in Congress.

If each slave counted as a full person that would give more representation, and thus larger clout when voting on slavery-related issues for the slave-holding states.

If slaves counted as zero in the census, there would have no increase in Congress for slave-holding states, and less relative clout.


41 posted on 10/21/2013 8:39:23 AM PDT by rlmorel ("A nation, despicable by its weakness, forfeits even the privilege of being neutral." A. Hamilton)
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To: rlmorel
Correct.

But the assumption was that the relative size of the general population of a state roughly correlated with the relative size of the subset of the population that were qualified voters.

The subset of slaves who could vote was zero.

55 posted on 10/21/2013 9:45:50 AM PDT by wideawake
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