Here's how I got it:
You said:
that’s some pretty neat legalistic BS
in reference to my post.
Then you said:
The Nazis always a legalistic bunch.
As to your other points:
(1) The Israeli reparations agreement concerns only claims that existed prior to Israel's existence, by definition. If Israel's reparations claims are legitimate - and they are - clearly the date of its sovereign existence is immaterial to those claims.
(2) The Nazis were not "legalistic" - they routinely broke laws, violated treaties, etc. The central tenet of their political ideology was the Fuehrerprinzip - whatever the leader wanted at the moment was law.
This was essential to their purpose: to always keep the population guessing as to what the police or the government would decide to do today. The Nazis were arbitrary and did not follow laws and their arbitrariness kept the population in perpetual fear and dread of what the authorities might capriciously choose to do tomorrow.
Freisler was actually a perfect example of this: he made the law up as he went along, improvising from the bench so he could punish people he thought needed punishing. He was famous for just inventing new crimes on the spot to justify his sentences.
(3) The nice man is dead. His son wants to return the tablet and his daughter wants to keep the tablet.
Two separate concepts guy.
1) Your post was legalistic and basically merely finding that the man had no right to that Nazi property he possessed.
2) And Nazis were indeed quite steeped in passing laws and creating legal frameworks to justify their acts as “legal”. Soviets were just as bad.
That doesn’t make you a Nazi. Nazis also likes BMWs, of which I have had one. I am also not a Nazi.
And no matter what settlement Germany reached with Israel, it cannot legally discharge some Polish mans claims. DId Israel take out a class action lawsuit notice in the Krakow times? Did Israel negotiate a treaty with the Russians or Poles, whereby they were the sole representatives of all Nazi Polish death camp claims? Did the Israelis ever distribute anything of value to this Polish man?
No law recognizes the “Israel settles everything” concept, unless we are all world citizens with no individual and personal rights. When did Poland allow all claims against its citizens to be settled by a 3rd party nation state?
It’s a legal fiction to claim the Israeli settlement settled HIS score. And you are quite wrong, the Nazis had a law for nearly everything, They have only been exceeded by the USA in the modern era.
As to his son and daughter, American probate law decides who gets it. And whoever wins THAT case can do with it as the please. His son can stab the family in the back and gift it to his dads tormenters, or his daughter can sell it and be wealthy. But that’s their personal business, under US law.