My college theology instructor (many, many years ago!) said that the existence of the written Code of Hammurabi proved that writing existed, and that the Bible was historically accurate.
Have the Muslims demanded that it be turned over to them to be properly destroyed, I mean “studied”?
My college theology instructor (many, many years ago!) said that the existence of the written Code of Hammurabi proved that writing existed, and that the Bible was historically accurate.
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Are those 2 separate thoughts or did the prof suggest that the existence of written code demonstrate that the Bible is historically accurate?
That a society has writing (usually confined to a small class of scribes before the invention of easy-to-learn scripts like the alphabet) doesn't necessarily mean that anyone is composing historical narratives. The Greek alphabet dates to at least the 8th century BC but the first Greek historians wrote in the 5th century. That said, there may have been various earlier written texts for an Israelite historian to have used--in fact in the Bible there are references to now-lost earlier books.