If a felon with a gun violation could vote in some states, why couldn't a felon WITHOUT a gun violation NOT vote in others.
I couldn't reconcile these thoughts (outside of states rights), and then I wondered ...
WHEN did the law that prevented a felon from owning a gun first appear on the books ... and why.
I really tried to research and find this answer, but I apparently don't know the correct reference word or it is something that just ... appears.
Can anyone shed some light on this
Thanx
That would be the Gun Control Act of 1968 (Public Law 90-618).
Signed by President Johnson on 22 October 1968.
It prohibited convicted felons from purchasing or possessing firearms
IIRC the gun control act of 1968 made it illegal for felons to own guns. I’m not sure, but it is a place to start.
http://www.npr.org/templates/story/story.php?storyId=91942478
US GUN LAWS: A HISTORY
Semper Guns!
*****
As far as I’m concerned any man not in prison should be able to own a gun.
Google “Felony disenfranchisement” Goes back to ancient times.
In America a “Governors Pardon” would be given after many years(varied) of “good conduct”