Suppose there is such a gene, and better, suppose that it can be detected prenatally. If a woman tests her fetus and finds it carries that gene, and she decides to abort it for that reason, could she be prohibited from doing so on the basis that doing so is discrimination based on sexual orientation? But then, wouldn’t such a prohibition interfere with her Right To Choose? I’m so confused.
The Senate already rejected a bill passed by the House which would have outlawed so-called sex-selection abortions. Obama supported the rejection of this bill. So it’s now established that to the Democrat party it’s perfectly OK to abort simply because a child is female. With that established I don’t see how any Democrat could say a woman could not abort because she believed the child would be gay.