“Don’t you find it interesting that the Bible provides no justification in this verse for claims that homosexual behavior is uniquely sinful?”
Forgive me, but I am not certain of your point.
Let me try to explain.
God gives us a list of sins: A, B, C, D, E and F. Those who practice such things will not enter the Kingdom of Heaven. This was essentially what was done in Paul’s letters to the Corinthians and to Timothy.
A great many modern Americans promptly pick out D and claim that God is particularly opposed to D and that practicing D is greatly more sinful than practicing the other sins on the list.
Can you explain how this fits with what the Scripture actually says as opposed to what we read into it?
I object not to the claim that homosexuality is a sin, but to the implicit pass given to the other sins by making homosexuality uniquely sinful.