No, it said that Two Parents was definitely settled, and that "Some Authorities" (implying the minority) would go further.
The problem is that, at the time of the approval of the Constitution, NO ONE had suggested two citizen parents were a requirement.
And that is because any other formulation WAS NOT LEGALLY POSSIBLE at this time! Split citizenship parentage did NOT BECOME POSSIBLE until 1922! You might as well suggest that they didn't mention the parents had to be male and female! OF COURSE NOT! NO OTHER POSSIBILITY EXISTED!
All the law prior used the phrase natural born subject - and that phrase was used interchangeably with natural born citizen for at least a few years after the Constitution.
And according to John Adam's Law book, that meant having Parents who were in Actual Obedience to the KING! (Owing allegiance to England.) As that meant exactly the same thing as the Vattel definition, there was no need to specifically mention it.
I am not going to fool with the rest of your comment. I can only take so much crap at one time.
You meant to say that laws to prevent split citizenship parentage were only in place from 1907 to 1922.
And note that it was only from 1907 and 1922 that a woman with American citizenship automatically lost her citizenship when she married a foreign national.
“After 1907, marriage determined a woman’s nationality status completely. Under the act of March 2, 1907, all women acquired their husband’s nationality upon any marriage occurring after that date. This changed nothing for immigrant women, but U.S.-born citizen women could now lose their citizenship by any marriage to any alien. Most of these women subsequently regained their U.S. citizenship when their husbands naturalized.”
http://www.archives.gov/publications/prologue/1998/summer/women-and-naturalization-1.html
It is not as simple as you present it.