[Mount Athos]

The true situation is that homosexuals are no more likely than heterosexuals to molest pre-pubescent children.

But homosexuals are drastically more likely to molest post-pubescent children.

The problem then is one of language!
The clinical definition of pedophilia is pre-pubescent children.
For the ordinary public, the common usage of the word pedophilia includes post-pubescent children.

So someone can legitimately claim that homosexuals are no more likely to be pedophiles, while hiding the truth that they are drastically more likely to molest post-pubescent children (as pederasts)

[little jeremiah]

Sources for your assertions?

TIA.