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To: naturalman1975
You are forgetting that in 1938 the German war machine was almost nonexistent.

In 1938 Britain and France had very antiquated forces, but they had forces. The Germans were about 90% bluff, even through the phony war they had very little.

During the assault on Poland the Germans were 100% committed, with no reserves. Had the French simply attacked at that point, they would have been unopposed.

1938-1940 saw Germany gain material advantage over the allies, not vice versa, so its hard to support the claim that the allies “had no choice” but to roll over during that period.

By 1940, Frances air force was 90% obsolete, but in 1938, it would have crushed the German Luftwaffe.

Yes, material state was weak in 1938, but it was as good as it was ever going to get for France, and Britain would never see another day (until the USA and USSR took over) that they would have as good of chances against the Germans.

What the allies lacked in 1938 was the capability to bluff the Germans into backing down and the will to carry through with a fight.

28 posted on 09/04/2011 5:36:24 AM PDT by SampleMan (Feral Humans are the refuse of socialism.)
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To: SampleMan
You are forgetting that in 1938 the German war machine was almost nonexistent.

No, I'm not. I'm just aware that the British were even less ready for war - but knew they would be much more ready in a year or two.

During the assault on Poland the Germans were 100% committed, with no reserves. Had the French simply attacked at that point, they would have been unopposed.

Yes - that's France, not Britain. I am talking about Britain. As I said in a previous message "The French, perhaps - they had a large army and a lot of capability."

France's problem was different from Britain's. The French had a large military capability but were happy to sit behind their borders, relying on things like the Maginot line, rather than attempting to project force beyond their borders. Britain did not have the capability to project force until at least late 1939.

Yes, material state was weak in 1938, but it was as good as it was ever going to get for France, and Britain would never see another day (until the USA and USSR took over) that they would have as good of chances against the Germans.

So Britain should have gone to war before it was ready to do so, because the French were ready? If France was ready, perhaps France should have gone to war. But it was in British interests to wait. To let the rearmament process begun in 1934 actually reach its first stage of readiness. At the time of Munich, that was still about a year away, and the British knew it.

Look - just consider the issue of Battleships and Aircraft Carriers alone. In 1938, the Royal Navy's most modern Battleships were HMS Nelson and HMS Rodney - laid down in 1922, and commissioned in 1927 and 1930. Every other Battleship they had was World War I era (admittedly somewhat modernised).

Five new battleships were under construction - laid down in 1937. They were due to come on line starting in 1940 (and indeed, did so).

Aircraft Carriers, the story is similar. Britain had no 'modern' Aircraft Carriers at the time of Munich. The most modern carrier they had was the 1918 design, HMS Hermes, which was commissioned in 1923.

But HMS Ark Royal was nearly complete at Munich, and the four Illustrious carriers were building as well, again to start coming online in 1940. HMS Implacable was also laid down in the year between Munich and the start of the war.

Britain was building in 1938. It wasn't ready yet. It was going to be ready by 1940 - and forestalling war until near the end of 1939 made a vast difference to its capabilities.

38 posted on 09/04/2011 2:16:22 PM PDT by naturalman1975 ("America was under attack. Australia was immediately there to help." - John Winston Howard)
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