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To: BenKenobi
“the Court HAS NEVER ruled on it and HAS NEVER ruled that illegal immigrants are “enemies”.”

And that, dear sir, ends your argument. Thanks for your post.

Why don't you MAN-UP and copy my post AS WRITTEN?

And, while the Court asserted that children of “enemies” ARE NOT citizens, the Court HAS NEVER ruled on it and HAS NEVER ruled that illegal immigrants are “enemies”. On the other hand, the Court has ALSO NOT ruled illegal immigrants as friends.

You take 1/2 of my point to attempt to "justify" your rationalization. I could just have easily ONLY said:

"The Court has NOT ruled illegal immigrants as friends."

And THAT, dear sir, would end your argument, given your way of thinking.

BUT, NEITHER ONE of our assertions would be correct. Just because the Court HAS NOT ruled for one way DOES NOT make the opposite true - and vice versa.

The plain, simple fact is that the Court has NEVER had the question put before it [as evidenced in the article that is the subject of this thread]:

"A 19th-century Supreme Court precedent also backs that interpretation, though no Supreme Court case has yet dealt with the issue of offspring of illegal immigrant parents.”

The CLOSEST the Court has come is in United States v. Wong Kim Ark [1898], where the SINGLE, SOLITARY, AND ONLY question resolved was whether a child born in the United States to LEGAL immigrants is a United States citizen under the 14th Amendment. And, the answer is yes.

BUT, the Ark Case DOES NOT encompass the status of a child born within the United States to ILLEGAL immigrants.

It remains to be decided by the Supreme Court.

105 posted on 01/05/2011 9:44:34 AM PST by Lmo56 (If ya wanna run with the big dawgs - ya gotta learn to piss in the tall grass ...</i><p>)
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To: Lmo56

“The Court has NOT ruled illegal immigrants as friends.”

So? Doesn’t mean that they’ve ruled them to be enemies. Another principle of the English common law is innocence before proven guilty. There’s a good reason they haven’t ruled that they are enemies.

“The plain, simple fact is that the Court has NEVER had the question put before it [as evidenced in the article that is the subject of this thread]”

Also put in the thread is the acknowledgment that there is legislation in place which has settled this issue. But that would involve going back and reading the thread.

I’m not going to repost what they posted.

“It remains to be decided by the Supreme Court.”

An excellent point on which to end the thread. You’d like them to rule one way, and I’d like them to rule the other.

Good day sir.


106 posted on 01/05/2011 1:43:55 PM PST by BenKenobi (Rush speaks! I hear, I obey)
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