To: skr
"Wouldn't 0≠1 do?" The proof is about SETS of numbers, e.g. The set of Odd numbers ≠ The set of Even numbers For this to be true, there cannot be any overlap between the 2 sets, which we know is true in the case of odd and even numbers simply because of how they are defined. But in the case at hand, if there were even one known counterexample where P=NP, no proof would be needed. But since no known counterexamples exist, the challenge is to prove rigorously that there cannot be any such examples. That may well require 100 pages. I trust that if any Freeper sent you $1 million on the basis of your "proof", you will return it...
15 posted on
08/14/2010 8:46:37 PM PDT by
DrC
To: DrC
18 posted on
08/14/2010 8:53:38 PM PDT by
patton
(Obama has replaced "Res Publica" with "Quod licet Jovi non licet bovi.")
To: DrC
Okay, now I’m worried; I understand at least part of the concept.
Nothing yet, but if someone does send me a million dollars that I didn’t earn, all refunds are subject to a 99% service fee. : )
36 posted on
08/14/2010 9:43:45 PM PDT by
skr
(May God confound the enemy)
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