By your standard, to be a tad hyperbolic, if a guy robs a bank and then dies in a shootout with the cops while in possession of the loot, his heirs and assigns have an unquestionable moral right to the possession of that loot and any income they derive from using it as capital.
You know, you come across as a bit of a nut. You make some good points, but if you were less free about calling others commies your points might get more respect.
When you start calling others names rather than showing logically why they are wrong, you weaken your own case more than that of your opponent.
"PRESCRIPTION. The manner of acquiring property by a long, honest, and uninterrupted possession or use during the time required by law. The possession must have been possessio longa, continua, et pacifica, nec sit ligitima interruptio, long, continued, peaceable, and without lawful interruption".
Adverse possession may legalize even clearly "taken" property, if at the time it was taken their was color of title in favor of the new possessor, and he has held it since with similar stipulations as with prescription. Again the reason being to prevent pettifogging over ancient titles in a manner that destroys all property. If you knew the first thing about actual law relating to property, as opposed to your ideology and your pretence that is rules such things, this would all be clear to you, and you'd see who is the "nut" here, for denying it.
And yes some modern witch hunts have clearly violated these settled laws. So have any number of other modern practices of robbery that proceed by the exact same mechanism - slander the just possessor, defile his name, then rob him before a poisoned jury. Which hasn't changed since the days of Nero and Caligula and is every bit as notorious and wrong when men do it today, as it was then.