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To: JoSixChip

Okay...

I need a little help here. (For clarity, I’m in Texas).

I understand that the lower is the part of the gun that needs to be “FFL-ed” if bought through a dealer.

I also understand that if I buy a pistol or a rifle or any other gun in a private sale, there is no requirement for any FFL involvement.

Can someone explain to me the difference between buying a pistol in a private sale and buying the lower receiver for an AR-15 in a private sale?

Thanks.


40 posted on 03/01/2010 5:48:43 PM PST by Chasaway (Tonto: "What do you mean "We", White Man?")
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To: Chasaway

None. No difference. You are clear to proceed.


43 posted on 03/01/2010 5:50:23 PM PST by mamelukesabre (Si Vis Pacem Para Bellum (If you want peace prepare for war))
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To: Chasaway

I can’t speak for Texas as I don’t know the gun laws there. But I do know that I have a relative in Houston that can not buy a firearm due to a DUI conviction. Just going by that I would think that Texas has pretty strict gun laws.


44 posted on 03/01/2010 5:51:25 PM PST by JoSixChip (HOPE = Have Obumber Prove Eligibility)
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