Gibberish. Give me a break. What on earth is the last sentence supposed to mean? It's mandated in the old testament but "wasn't carried out after 79 A.D. or before"? Nonsense. The Bible mentions the folks who pick up stones to stone the prostitute... until Jesus intervenes to save her. Everyone forgotten the "who is without sin cast the first stone" thing?
On what does the author base his assertion that no stoning was done in ancient Judaism? Wishful thinking? His contradictions doesn't exactly help him make his point.
Ironically enough the author himself then mentions:
Jesus famously raised the bar for stoning beyond human reach when he said to a crowd that was poised to stone an adulteress, "Let him who is without sin among you be the first to throw a stone at her" (John 8:7).
So in other words he admits that it was part of Jewish legal practice in biblical times.
I couldn't care less about the arabian bedouin religion... but the urge to stick it to islam isn't a substitute for honest arguments.
Are you aware that the timeline of the gospels is about 30AD or so? The author is implying that stoning ended in Judea sometime between the AD 30s and 79AD when the (Second) Jewish Temple was destroyed. As a historical note, the Romans didn't typically let capital punishment be carried out by local authoritie. Capital crimes under Roman law which were carried out by Roman authorities.
They also stoned Stephen. It is told about in the book of Acts.