The idea that that statement is true is absurd
The South was importing much more than any other section of the country and consuming the products.
They were paying the tariffs, whether directly on goods purchased at the docks, or from Northern middlemen who added the cost of the tariff to the selling prices. Remember, the consumer paid the tariff as a part of the purchase price, and most consumption of goods was occurring in the South.
Then why were approximately 95% of all tariff revenue collected at three Northern ports? If the South was consuming it all then why didn't it go directly to the Southern ports instead of being landed in Northern ones?