To: Hank Kerchief
26 posted on
01/29/2009 8:53:39 PM PST by
Tidbit
To: Tidbit
Evidence of Brain Chemistry Abnormalities in Bipolar Disorder
Your problem is that you're not reading the original research study. You rely upon some journalist to interpret the study -- who obviously doesn't know how to critically evaluate a study's validity.
First, the findings are correlational. Correlation does not imply causation. One of the first things you learn in an introductory stats class.. If you are implying a causal relationship between these brain differences and the symptoms of bipolar disorder, you've made an incorrect inference, and should study up on hypothetico-deductive logic.
Second, the sample size in this study is very small. Only 16 patients are compared to 16 non-patients. That's a woefully inadequate sample size for making any reasonable generalizations to the population of interest here.
But most importantly, and the huge gaping hole of a flaw in this study is this: ALL THE BIPOLAR PATIENTS WERE BEING MAINTAINED ON MOOD-STABILIZING DRUGS AND A BUNCH OF THEM WERE ON ANTI-PSYCHOTIC MEDICATION. Gee, do ya think that might account for the differences in their brain functions, in comparison to non-patient comparison who are NOT on these drugs? TALK ABOUT A HUGE FRIGGIN' CONFOUNDING VARIABLE!!! This is the most pointless study I've read in a long time. You can conclude NOTHING from this, and the study probably shouldn't have been published, because people like you are going around referencing it like it means something when it doesn't mean jack. Good lord.
See for yourself. Read the study, dude:
http://ajp.psychiatryonline.org/cgi/content/full/157/10/1619
33 posted on
01/29/2009 10:02:01 PM PST by
bdeaner
(The bread which we break, is it not a participation in the body of Christ? (1 Cor. 10:16))
To: Tidbit
Thank you for finding that link, and for waiting for my tardy response. Very busy, and though late I’ll attempt to answer in a reasonable way.
My take on the article is that the anomaly is actually physical, and any chemistry is a result of physical differences in the brain. If such physical differences actually cause some kind of “psychological” symptoms, the problem is not a psychological (mental) one, it is a physiological (neurological) one. The whole point of psychology is to deal with so-called “mental” problems, not physiological ones.
I’d be delighted if there were some way to treat a neurological problem with drugs—it would even make sense. But there is no way to treat what psychology calls “mental” problems with drugs.
I have some experience with “chemical” imbalance effects, since I was on very high doses of steroids for a number of years which induce “steroid psychosis” and a form of diabetes. Fortunately all in the past, but I can testify, I was always aware of the difference between the “psychotic” induced feelings and reality, and, with pain, could always make the right choices.
Not sure how cogent I am at this hour, but thanks for the interesting responses.
Hank
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson