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To: wideawake
That's not correct. Because Arabic has no vowels per-se a different vowel could very well mean the same thing. Buraq and baraq both mean the same thing: "lightning". And this is the name of the creature as well.

The lack of proper vowels is the reason why countless spellings exist for semitic words in different regional dialects. Mohammed, muhammad, mahomet, mehmet etc.

9 posted on 09/15/2008 7:25:23 AM PDT by SolidWood (McCain/Palin 2008)
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To: SolidWood
That's not correct. Because Arabic has no vowels per-se a different vowel could very well mean the same thing.

That is completely wrong.

Arabic does indeed have vowels - it simply doesn't write them as letters, but as signs around the consonants.

The vowels are the source of inflection in Arabic as in all Semitic languages.

"Buraq" and "baraq" can never mean the same thing in a Semitic language any more than "want" and "won't" can mean the same thing in English.

Vowels are far more distinct in Semitic languages than in Indo-European languages - homonyms are far rarer.

16 posted on 09/15/2008 7:38:36 AM PDT by wideawake (Why is it that those who like to be called Constitutionalists know the least about the Constitution?)
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