The lack of proper vowels is the reason why countless spellings exist for semitic words in different regional dialects. Mohammed, muhammad, mahomet, mehmet etc.
That is completely wrong.
Arabic does indeed have vowels - it simply doesn't write them as letters, but as signs around the consonants.
The vowels are the source of inflection in Arabic as in all Semitic languages.
"Buraq" and "baraq" can never mean the same thing in a Semitic language any more than "want" and "won't" can mean the same thing in English.
Vowels are far more distinct in Semitic languages than in Indo-European languages - homonyms are far rarer.