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To: quadrant
Technically there was no Holocaust, but Hitler's intent was there.

Just for clarification, you are implying prior to 42, right?

10 posted on 06/23/2008 6:56:40 PM PDT by mnehring
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To: mnehrling

Correct.
The mass killings began as soon as the Nazis invaded Poland, but the intent - if even subconscious - was implicit all along.


15 posted on 06/23/2008 7:06:12 PM PDT by quadrant
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To: mnehrling

Correct.
The mass killings began as soon as the Nazis invaded Poland, but the intent - if even subconscious - was implicit all along.


16 posted on 06/23/2008 7:06:18 PM PDT by quadrant
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To: mnehrling
My recollection of what I have read and seen on TV is that the Wannsee Conference was called to determine how to slaughter the Jews without having an emotional impact on the Nazi soldiers who would do the slaughtering. The Nazis had been killing the Jews, by shooting them for the most part, as soon as the invaded Russia but the emotional toll was quite great on their soldiers.

Pat Buchanan also claims Hitler did not plan on attacking Great Britain because he did not build a surface fleet to take on the British fleet.

However, in Rise and Fall of the 3rd Reich, Shirer talks about German memos documenting plans to have a fleet of some sort (may be subs) ready to go in 1941 to attack England. Hitler jumped the gun in August 1939 because he did not believe England and France would fight for the Poles.

He was right too! The Phony War was called that for a reason.

18 posted on 06/23/2008 7:34:57 PM PDT by dominic flandry
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