How about the frenchman who bought the right to buy a widow’s house thinking he would surely outlive her?
She went to his funeral, I believe.
LOL!
From a legal perspective, I think if the contract were executed properly, and the buyer should predecease the seller, the sale price of the house would be considered a loan payable upon death of the buyer. It would be a defined asset that would go to the buyer’s estate, and whoever was the buyer’s heir would still have a claim to the money on the death of the seller. The buyer would basically be loaning the seller the sale price in exchange for a reverse life annuity in the amount of the interest on that loan, which would be paid for by giving the buyer title to the house. The principal would be payable to the buyer (or his heirs or assignees) upon death of the seller.