Either the whole Bible is to be taken literally or none of it is.How can one take Matthew 27:9-10 literally when the text cites a passage in Jeremiah that isn't there? Check it out for yourself.
--Resolute Conservative
If you can find the passage Matthew attributes to Jeremiah somewhere in Jeremiah I will consider taking the whole Bible literally as you do, if not, you should consider the possibility that your approach to scripture needs to be adjusted.
You will find this prophecy alluded to in Jeremiah 18:1–4 and evidently quoted from Zechariah 11:12–13. It is credited to Jeremiah simply because in Jesus’ day Jeremiah was the first of the books of the prophets, and that section was identified by the name of the first book.