To: P-Marlowe
‘And why can’t a person “discriminate”?’
Answered by Rosa Parks 50 or so years ago.
48 posted on
05/08/2007 9:58:31 PM PDT by
Rembrandt
(We would have won Viet Nam w/o Dim interference.)
To: Rembrandt
Answered by Rosa Parks 50 or so years ago.What was the answer?
Is it unconstitutional for a restaurant owner to throw out a bum?
60 posted on
05/08/2007 10:16:42 PM PDT by
P-Marlowe
(LPFOKETT GAHCOEEP-w/o*)
To: Rembrandt
‘And why can’t a person “discriminate”?’
Answered by Rosa Parks 50 or so years ago.Not. Even. Close.
Discriminating means drawing distinctions. Prejudice means assuming distinctions where no valid ones exist. I can discriminate between Charles Manson and Mother Teresa. No law prevents it and the most elemental common sense argues in favor.
To: Rembrandt
Answered by Rosa Parks 50 or so years ago. That was public transportation enforcing a racist tradition. This is a private business rejecting a judicial travesty.
106 posted on
05/09/2007 6:56:41 AM PDT by
Theophilus
(Nothing can make Americans safer than to stop aborting them.)
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