LOL
There is nothing special about the 'I am' above.
I 1473 - from the Greek
ego {eg-o'}
1) I, me, my
am 1510 - from the Greek
eimi {i-mee'}
1) to be, to exist, to happen, to be present
Those very words are spoken by numerous people throughout the NT and guess what. They weren't God either. Instead of trying to force the text to say something that isn't there, why don't you just accept what the text actually says?
Matthew 27:46, Mark 15:34
My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
Is Jesus asking why he forsook himself?
John 14:28
My Father is greater than I.
God and Jesus are NOT the same entity.
1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men,
the man Christ Jesus.
God and Jesus are NOT the same entity.
Luk 22:42 Saying, Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done.
43 And there appeared an angel unto him from heaven, strengthening him.
Are angels stronger than God? There are two wills spoken of in the above verses. God and Jesus are NOT the same entity.
God is not mocked.
You pretend to know Greek, but you do not have any serious understanding of the language.
Nowhere in the New Testament, or anywhere else in Greek literature, except in this passage is a present indicative active form of the verb "to be" used to indicate a time prior to an aorist construction.
It is a clear and unmistakable reference to Exodus 3:14.
Jesus of Nazareth is Almighty God.