Apparently the accuser remembers "nothing". She was at a POT and booze party. She was zonked and had to be escorted "home". She asked the guy to put her PJ's on. Doesn't remember a thing excepting waking up and feeling violated. Examination reveals the presence of "fluids".
Will, it this time, be that the accused plays on the chess team?
If being impaired to the point of 'not being able to legally consent' is a basis for the charges, would a valid defense be that the alleged rapist was in fact "so impaired that he could not recognize her state of impairment"; and that "it is even possible that SHE took illegal advantage of HIS state of impairment"?
Or am I bing too "sexist", "insensitive", and "criminally logical"?