[Non-Sequitur]

When did Lincoln do this ? YOU do know the Emancipation Proclamation did NOT free slaves in the North, don't you?

Well Ms. "I have gone into this program with a BA in history", Congress passed legislation ending slavery in D.C. on April 16, 1862. It could do this because Article I, Section 8, Clause 17 of the Constitution gives Congres the power to "To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the Acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States..."

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[Paige]

The Emancipation Proclamation did not free slaves in the North. Why do you twist up what I posted? I did later state in another post that the 13th Amendment did end slavery in the North. It is simple to find once you get past all the revised history.

The point is that the North was as guilty, if not more so, than the South when it came to th slave issue. When they couldn't make any more money off of the slaves and it threatened free white males lively hood (jobs) along with the acquisition of land, they didn't want westward expansion for slave holders.

This led to the War of Northern Aggression. Thank goodness for the Information Age, because the PC history writers have tried to cover up the whole truth for years. Slavery was wrong then and it is wrong now, but this one-sided fabrication that has caused the castigation of the South is over with; therefore, it is time for the whole truth to come out and expose the North for their continued involvement in the heinous act of slavery.