[sockmonkey]

"...node iddum eentup sechew.

I think it's "no, I didn't mean to upset you."

[grellis]

By George, I think you've got it!

[GraceCoolidge]

I'm glad I am not the only one who was trying to figure that out! I think sockmonkey is right.

Now, here's what has been bothering me lately: it turns out Snape was the eavesdropper who sent Voldemort to Harry's parents. However, in Goblet of Fire, Dumbledore testifies that Snape returned to the good side before Voldemort's downfall and turned spy at great personal risk.

In Half Blood Prince, on the other hand, Dumbledore suggests (I think pretty much states) that Snape returned to the good based on his terrible remorse after Voldemort killed Harry's parents. Since his failed attempt to kill Harry at the same time was Voldemort's downfall, and earlier Dumbledore said Snape came back prior to that downfall, isn't this inconsistent?

In other words, how can Snape have returned to the side of good based on his remorse at causing the death of Harry's parents (as stated in Half Blood Prince), and yet have returned to the good side prior to that occurrence (from the Pensieve scene in Goblet of Fire)?

Sorry this post isn't making much sense.