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To: P-Marlowe
whatever branch of government is approached with that petition could grant it.

Got a cite? This sounds fishy to me.

43 posted on 03/27/2005 7:15:26 PM PST by jude24 (The Republicans are the party that says government doesn't work and then gets elected and proves it.)
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To: jude24

The amendment does say that we can petition the government for a redress of grievances.

It doesn't say at all what that means.

You've got to approach someone with it....why not the president as much as anyone else?


44 posted on 03/27/2005 7:23:25 PM PST by xzins (Retired Army Chaplain and Proud of It!)
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To: jude24; xzins; winstonchurchill
Got a cite? This sounds fishy to me.

How about the plain language of first amendment? You can't get a better cite than that. (Unless you are some kind of pharisaical legal scholar).

It is clear that if a petition for a redress of grievances is an available remedy under the first amendment, that the "government" (any and all branches) has the power to grant it. And if it is the judical branch one is alleging a greivance against, it would clearly be a violation of the constitution to deny the power to redress that greivance by one of the other branches of government.

45 posted on 03/27/2005 7:25:29 PM PST by P-Marlowe
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