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Was 43% a mandate for Clinton in '92?

Posted on 11/05/2004 9:24:13 AM PST by DavidThomas

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To: DavidThomas

Bush got at least 40% in 47 states this time.


21 posted on 11/05/2004 10:11:26 AM PST by Atlas Sneezed (Your Friendly Freeper Patent Attorney)
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To: DavidThomas

Understand, there is this complex mathematical formula used by the MSM when figuring Mandates--

Something like
Democrat Mandate= #votes x2= total votes
Republican Mandate= #votes /2= total votes


22 posted on 11/05/2004 10:15:30 AM PST by najida (Liberals: Their mama's didn't raise'em right!)
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To: DavidThomas
Mandate, my ___!

Since the end of WW-II, only TWO (2) Democrat Presidents have received the majority of the popular vote, LBJ in 1964 and Carter in 1976.

Since the end of WW-II only TWO (2) Republican Presidents have NOT received a majority of the popular vote, Nixon in 1968 and George Bush in 2000.

The Dems have peen a minority party for most of the last FIFTY (50) years!

23 posted on 11/05/2004 10:16:23 AM PST by Sooth2222
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To: jcb8199
Plus, point out that Bush had 2.51 million sq mi., while Kerry had 511,700 million sq mi.

511, 700 sq mi.

Not 511,700 million sq. mi. LOL!

I knew what you meant, though. I jut wanted to clear that up for any DUmmie lurkers. :)

24 posted on 11/05/2004 10:16:49 AM PST by valleygal
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To: The G Man

I seem to remember the NY Times also used the phrase "electoral mandate" at the time -- to use Clinton's lopsided victory in the electoral college to obscure the fact that 57% of the voters in this country voted for someone other than Clinton.


25 posted on 11/05/2004 10:19:45 AM PST by Alberta's Child (I made enough money to buy Miami -- but I pissed it away on the Alternative Minimum Tax.)
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