Posted on 10/28/2003 6:56:13 PM PST by rudy45
I know that armed citizens can and (unfortunately) have had problems because they used their weapons when doing so was deemed inappropriate.
I wonder, however, if any of them have (or if they could) get into trouble for NOT using the weapon when perhaps they could or should have. For example, citizen is in supermarket, and robbery occurs. Citizen decides against engaging because of no clear shot, or innocents are in the way. Later, people learn that this person was carrying, and file suit against the person.
Has such an event ever happened?
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