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In this instance, how is “paying for a speech” any different than “giving a bribe”?
wordpress ^ | August 29, 2016 | Dan from Squirrel Hill

Posted on 08/30/2016 11:56:45 AM PDT by grundle

In this instance, how is “paying for a speech” any different than “giving a bribe”?

In November 2011, a Swedish telecom company called Ericsson paid Secretary of State Hillary Clinton’s husband, Bill Clinton, $750,000 for giving a speech. In April 2012, Obama signed an executive order which placed sanctions on telecom sales to Iran and Syria. However, Ericsson was given an exemption from these sanctions.

In this instance, how is “paying for a speech” any different than “giving a bribe”?


TOPICS: Miscellaneous
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To: grundle

Same thing


21 posted on 08/30/2016 1:54:15 PM PDT by faithhopecharity ("Politicians are not born. They're excreted." Marcus Tullius Cicero.)
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To: grundle

Same thing. Except Clintons have immunity from normal equal justice


22 posted on 08/30/2016 1:55:25 PM PDT by faithhopecharity ("Politicians are not born. They're excreted." Marcus Tullius Cicero.)
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To: grundle

There will always be bribes in government. Whatever they get called. More government power, more bribes.

The Founders didn’t imagine people would be righteous, they sought to limit government so much that the incentive to offer bribes would be minimized.


23 posted on 08/30/2016 1:59:55 PM PDT by jjotto ("Ya could look it up!")
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To: grundle

Not, when that half million dollar speech comes from a speaker who is having trouble filling small venues for free.


24 posted on 08/30/2016 2:20:57 PM PDT by ctdonath2 ("If anyone will not listen to your words, shake the dust from your feet and leave them." - Jesus)
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To: grundle

There is no difference. It IS a bribe.
What is your point?


25 posted on 08/30/2016 2:21:20 PM PDT by Little Ray (Freedom Before Security!)
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