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To: Ohioan

Well, Bill, a little earlier. Most states had done away with property restrictions to vote by the 1820s, but pretty close.


37 posted on 03/19/2014 6:20:30 AM PDT by LS ('Castles made of sand, fall in the sea . . . eventually.' Hendrix)
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To: LS
Where you see the dramatic increase, however, is between the popular vote totals in 1824 & 1828, where there is an upward explosion.

Actually, I believe South Carolina still restricted the vote to the 1840s.

My personal feeling is that with the increased urbanization--however aesthetically unfortunate--it would not be practical to return to an acreage requirement--as in the Northwest Ordinance. What should, however, be made an issue is allowing people being bribed by completely unearned benefits, to vote for any level of Government that is bribing them.

Just raising the issue would increase awareness of the problem, and increase the vote among Conservatives.

William Flax

39 posted on 03/19/2014 7:16:49 AM PDT by Ohioan
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