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To: Jacquerie

One thing I don’t get, the SC is not the court of origin in this but the final authority on an appeal. Does not the lower court record count? In other words, why is the government now allowed to change its stance on the issue? First, it was not a tax, then it was a tax. First it was the commerce clause than it is the proper clause. Why go through the charade of two inferior courts to get to this point and of what value was the record of the inferior courts?


13 posted on 03/22/2012 5:21:31 AM PDT by Mouton (Voting is an opiate of the electorate. Nothing changes no matter who wins..)
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To: Mouton

goop point mouton

...awaiting input from a freeper, esquire...


14 posted on 03/22/2012 5:31:55 AM PDT by Principled
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To: Mouton
I believe it is because in Article III Section 2, the Scotus “shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact . . . “

IOW, it can determine the facts of the case as if the lower courts did not exist. Unlike jury trials, Scotus is not limited to considering only that which the plaintiffs/defense bring up.

23 posted on 03/22/2012 6:39:22 AM PDT by Jacquerie (No court will save us from ourselves.)
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