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Being born in the United States does not even make one a 'NATIVE' citizen.
nobarack08
| Feb 12, 2010
| syc1959
Posted on 02/12/2010 12:35:44 PM PST by syc1959
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To: syc1959
"wrong, Vattel was in the continental congress."
Well actually, de Vattel was already dead by then. But I guess you meant that his book was used by the Congress. And it absolutely was.
Unfortunately, it was in French and did not even contain the phrase "natural born citizen." Certainly you are not going to be so hypocritical as to insist the French "indigenes" was the same as "natural born citizen" just a few posts after whining that "natural born citizen" and "natural born subject" were two completely different things. Are you?
Because that would be just so... typical.
To: syc1959
British Common Law that included Bl Com [Blackstone Commentaries] dictated that British subject could never forfeit being in the allegiance to the King regardless of place or time. Sorry, son. My neighbors were both British citizens at the time their kids were born here -- and the kids are US citizens, according to the Constitution and subsequent court rulings.
The fact that Britain also recognizes them as citizens is irrelevant to their US citizenship status.
182
posted on
02/12/2010 4:23:31 PM PST
by
r9etb
To: Las Vegas Ron
As we used to say in Ranger School, “Nice attack, wrong hill.”
I did not say his book didn’t exist.
I said that no translation of his book that included the phrase “natural born citizen” existed.
And it didn’t.
To: EnderWiggins
As we used to say in Ranger School, Nice attack, wrong hill. er, no, the Founding Fathers spoke French so that is irrelevant.
You have proof of your assertion that the phrase NBC was inserted at a later date or are you spouting fairy dust from your arse again?
184
posted on
02/12/2010 4:34:18 PM PST
by
Las Vegas Ron
("Because without America, there is no free world" - Canada Free Press - MSM where are you?)
To: DoctorBulldog
Doc,
It’s always a bit tiresome to have to slay again the already slain, but you and I have never really talked before so bear with me.
1. The original French of de Vattel was “Les naturels ou indigenes...”
2. The first six English translations of de Vattel translated that phrase to read, “The natives or indigenes...” This is very important, so I hope you are paying attention. They translated “naturels” to “natives,” not to “natural born citizens.”
3. In the 1797 London edition we find the phrase “natural born citizens” for the first time. But the new translation is this, “The natives or natural born citizens...” Again, this is very important, so I hope you are paying attention. “Naturels” is still translated as “natives.” It is the word “indigenes” that is now translated for the first time as “natural born citizens.”
In every single English language edition of de Vattel to this very day, “naturels” has never been “translated as “natural born citizens.” And I ask you, if 250 years of professional translators have never once thought to translate “naturels” as “natural born citizens,” why would you imagine for a second that Ben Franklin would have?
So again...the point remains. It is impossible without time travel for de Vattel to have had any influence over the article II definition of “natural born citizen.”
To: r9etb
The fact that Britain also recognizes them as citizens is irrelevant to their US citizenship status. True, but they're not NBC and are Constitutionally ineligible for POTUS
186
posted on
02/12/2010 4:36:31 PM PST
by
Las Vegas Ron
("Because without America, there is no free world" - Canada Free Press - MSM where are you?)
To: EnderWiggins
The natives or natural born citizens... Again, this is very important, so I hope you are paying attention. Naturels is still translated as natives.Ya know, you are a cocky, condecending smart ass.
Accepting your premise, you left out the part of being born to TWO citizen parents.
What a dweeb.
187
posted on
02/12/2010 4:39:45 PM PST
by
Las Vegas Ron
("Because without America, there is no free world" - Canada Free Press - MSM where are you?)
To: Las Vegas Ron
"You have proof of your assertion that the phrase NBC was inserted at a later date or are you spouting fairy dust from your arse again?"
Of course I do.
Here is an essay by a guy who is even a Birther that proves this. If you scroll down you will find the relavent scanned pages of every English language edition of de Vattel published between its original writing and the 1797 edition that first included the phrase.
Check for yourself.
http://www.greschak.com/essays/natborn/index.htm
To: Las Vegas Ron
"Accepting your premise, you left out the part of being born to TWO citizen parents."
If you accept the premise, then that part becomes completely irrelevant.
To: Las Vegas Ron
True, but they're not NBC and are Constitutionally ineligible for POTUS Prove it. Not just by saying so, which is what birthers do, but by actually showing some legal decisions that prove it....
Not holding my breath.
190
posted on
02/12/2010 4:43:43 PM PST
by
r9etb
To: EnderWiggins
But Eisenhower never dueled anyone...
Spiro Agnew, might have...
OK.
Maybe my humor needs to be less subtle...
191
posted on
02/12/2010 4:44:47 PM PST
by
El Sordo
(The bigger the government, the smaller the citizen.)
To: r9etb
192
posted on
02/12/2010 4:47:45 PM PST
by
Las Vegas Ron
("Because without America, there is no free world" - Canada Free Press - MSM where are you?)
To: EnderWiggins
You can be an NBC by birth only. There is no law on the books to make someone that was born a citizen of another country a HBC of the US. They can be a citizen but never a NBC.
Unless you know something no one else does, BO’s father was a Kenyan at the time of his birth which made him a citizen/subject of the UK. Because a father has as much rights as a mother, that made BO a citizen/subject of the UK.
To: EnderWiggins
If you accept the premise, then that part becomes completely irrelevant. That's right just go around in circles, two citizen parents is what defines NBC for his purposes.
How much you getting paid to do this?
Is Rahm really gay?
194
posted on
02/12/2010 4:51:49 PM PST
by
Las Vegas Ron
("Because without America, there is no free world" - Canada Free Press - MSM where are you?)
To: IMR 4350
"You can be an NBC by birth only. There is no law on the books to make someone that was born a citizen of another country a HBC of the US. They can be a citizen but never a NBC."
No law is necessary to "make" someone an NBC. As you yourself point out, NBCs are born, not made. A person born on American soil (who is not the child of a foreign diplomat or occupying army) is an NBC, no matter how many other nations also decide to grant him their citizenship.
To: EnderWiggins
I cannot speak for anyone else. I only know what I have had to do when a BC was needed for ID of son. The same with my daughter. Needed BC...not COLB. And she with her children.
196
posted on
02/12/2010 4:56:41 PM PST
by
oldteen
To: Las Vegas Ron
"That's right just go around in circles, two citizen parents is what defines NBC for his purposes."
Maybe someplace.
But not in this country.
To: EnderWiggins
SWo explain how “not merely subjct in some respect or degree to the jurisdiction of the United States, but completely subject to their political jurisdiction, and owing them direct and immediate allegiange.”
So to ‘what’ degree was Barack Hussein Obama under US Jurisdiction at birth? Knowing that he was already under British jurisdiction, and how that being only partial or to whatever degree you impose not being in conflict with “completely subject to”?
Mind you this is The Supreme Court that has stated complete and not partial to any degree jurisdiction.
198
posted on
02/12/2010 5:01:59 PM PST
by
syc1959
To: EnderWiggins
But not in this country.Yes, in this Country.
It's in OUR Constitution, last I checked it was written for OUR Country.
Maybe you think it was written for France, eh?
199
posted on
02/12/2010 5:02:38 PM PST
by
Las Vegas Ron
("Because without America, there is no free world" - Canada Free Press - MSM where are you?)
To: Las Vegas Ron
ANSWER THE SIMPLE QUESTIONS;
So explain how not merely subjct in some respect or degree to the jurisdiction of the United States, but completely subject to their political jurisdiction, and owing them direct and immediate allegiange.
So to what degree was Barack Hussein Obama under US Jurisdiction at birth? Knowing that he was already under British jurisdiction, and how that being only partial or to whatever degree you impose not being in conflict with completely subject to?
Mind you this is The Supreme Court that has stated complete and not partial to any degree jurisdiction.
200
posted on
02/12/2010 5:06:03 PM PST
by
syc1959
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