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How do you arrive at that conclusion?
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How can anyone still claim that it is legal to deprive American citizens of any right, anywhere, because "most of the voters want it that way"?
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I am trying to figure out what you mean?
Thank you for stating your reason instead of just name calling etc as what many rants are on this subject.
...oh and how could I fail to mention his budget-disintegrating, government-mandating, big-government RomneyCare boondoggle.
Popular demand DOES NOT NEGATE THE CONSTITUTION! It did not in the segregated South in the 50s and 60s, and it doesn't today, in Massachusetts.