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To: RummyChick
A marriage that was void at inception is not considered a legal marriage just because you got a marriage license.

Not until it is proven void.

So until someone proves that the marriage between Stanly and Barack I was void, they will remain married on in the eyes of the law.

And no, heresay and rumors about Barrack I's bigamy is not sufficient evidence to prove it.

80 posted on 10/02/2009 2:25:15 PM PDT by curiosity
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To: curiosity

You can’t have a valid contract when you weren’t able to enter the contract in the first place.

Immigation law calls for a valid contract. No such contract was entered. Just because you lied on the marriage application does not make it a valid contract.

Do some research on immigration case law. The concept of bigamous marriage has come up before.

How in the world do you think you can have a valid contract just because you lie to enter into the contract.

You cannot be married,If you are already married, NO VALID CONTRACT.

It is not a VOIDABLE marriage. IT IS A VOID MARRIAGE. There is a difference.


82 posted on 10/02/2009 2:30:49 PM PDT by RummyChick
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To: curiosity

You need to do some reading ON VOID MARRIAGES.

Start here.
http://www.answers.com/topic/bigamy#

For example
“The existence of a valid marriage entered into by the accused party prior to the bigamous marriage is an essential element of the offense. No particular type of ceremony is required, and even a common-law marriage can suffice. The bigamist must be aware that his or her spouse is living at the time of the subsequent marriage.”


84 posted on 10/02/2009 2:33:04 PM PDT by RummyChick
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