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Sonia Sotomayor NOT the first Hispanic for US Supreme Court
israeljewishnews ^

Posted on 05/26/2009 8:04:13 PM PDT by hecht

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1 posted on 05/26/2009 8:04:13 PM PDT by hecht
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To: hecht

Even though Spain at various times ruled Portugal, Portuguese is not really Hispanic ....so I’m told ....


2 posted on 05/26/2009 8:16:45 PM PDT by SkyDancer ('Those who hammer their guns into plows will plow for those who do not..' ~ Thomas Jefferson)
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To: hecht

You have to make a pretty big stretch for the modern meaning of “Hispanic” to mean someone born in New York of Portuguese descent.


3 posted on 05/26/2009 8:17:21 PM PDT by Kleon
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To: Kleon

How is that the case?

Sotomayer was born in the Bronx and is of Puerto Rican descent. If Puerto Ricans are Hispanics, how are Portugese not?

Are Brazilians not Hispanics because they have Portugese blood in them as opposed to Spanish?


4 posted on 05/26/2009 8:25:10 PM PDT by CaspersGh0sts
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To: Kleon

...and also Jewish.

I don’t care if one is Hispanic or not but clearly Justice Cardozo does not fit the label of “Hispanic” as currently defined.

Heck, then again, what do you call Japanese Peruvians, who are pure 100% by blood but are classified “Hispanics”..

Boy! I just confused myself.... See!!! That is why labels dont work!


5 posted on 05/26/2009 8:26:58 PM PDT by SoftwareEngineer
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To: CaspersGh0sts

I would say yes.

Brazilians are Latin Americans but not Hispanics.
Haitians are Latin Americans but not Hispanics.
(French is a Latin-derived language).


6 posted on 05/26/2009 8:29:35 PM PDT by scrabblehack
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To: SkyDancer

The penninsula was called “Hispania”.


7 posted on 05/26/2009 8:33:37 PM PDT by donmeaker (Invicto)
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To: scrabblehack

So, you would assert that Candiens are Latin Americans?


8 posted on 05/26/2009 8:34:54 PM PDT by donmeaker (Invicto)
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To: SkyDancer

“Spain” never ruled Portugal, as Spain didn’t exist until 1469 with the combining of the Kingdoms Aragon and Castile. Portugal was recognized as an independant Kingdom in 1143 by the Kingdoms of Leon and Castile. The Church recognized it as a legitimate Kingdom in 1179.


9 posted on 05/26/2009 9:08:54 PM PDT by Anitius Severinus Boethius
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To: hecht

Freepers, please dont use this awful intel in public. Newsbusters seem to want their readers to get laughed at half the time.

He was a pasty white euro-jew from N.Y with a spanish-colonial last name. The dark-skinned natives of spanish-colonial countries had european-spanish last names forced on them, dont forget.


10 posted on 05/26/2009 9:25:19 PM PDT by skipper18
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To: Kleon; hecht; SkyDancer
Hispania was the name given by the Romans to the whole of the Iberian Peninsula (modern Portugal, Spain, Andorra, Gibraltar and a very small southern part of France).
11 posted on 05/26/2009 10:02:27 PM PDT by caveat emptor
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To: CaspersGh0sts
Are Brazilians not Hispanics because they have Portugese blood in them as opposed to Spanish?

Yes, exactly. The difference between Spanish and Portuguese descent is not slight.

12 posted on 05/26/2009 10:07:59 PM PDT by Kleon
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To: caveat emptor
Hispania was the name given by the Romans to the whole of the Iberian Peninsula (modern Portugal, Spain, Andorra, Gibraltar and a very small southern part of France).

That doesn't change the meaning of the word as used today. The name "Spain" comes from "Hispania," which is why we call people of Spanish descent "Hispanic." It would be like calling Polish people German, just because part of modern Poland is in an area the Romans called Germania.

13 posted on 05/26/2009 10:39:09 PM PDT by Kleon
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To: Kleon
"That doesn't change the meaning of the word as used today. The name "Spain" comes from "Hispania," which is why we call people of Spanish descent "Hispanic." It would be like calling Polish people German, just because part of modern Poland is in an area the Romans called Germania."

The problem is, Hispanic literally means "of Spain", but in most U.S. Government definitions, Spanish people are not Hispanic, because Hispanic means those from former Spanish colonies in the Western Hemisphere. Note Hispanic does not apply to former Spanish African colonies or to the Philippines. In some cases, the term Hispanic is used to apply to anyone of Latin American ancestry.

These labels are irrelevant and insane. Hispanic has become hopelessly twisted to the point of being utterly meaningless. At least they stopped calling Hispanic a "race".

As for Cardozo, there is no debate that Cardozo is a Spanish name, and Cardozo was likely of Spanish ancestry. But by today's definition, Hispanic means a descendant of a victim of Spanish colonial oppression, not of Spanish descent.

Remember, in the leftist caste system, everything is about one's victim status.

14 posted on 05/27/2009 11:28:39 AM PDT by magellan
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To: caveat emptor

With that logic then all the people who now live in California, Arizona, New Mexico and Texas are all Hispanic since Spain once ruled that area ....Portuguese are not Hispanic ....


15 posted on 05/27/2009 1:32:52 PM PDT by SkyDancer ('Those who hammer their guns into plows will plow for those who do not..' ~ Thomas Jefferson)
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I am Portuguese American and I do not consider myself hispanic no one in my family has ever used that term and neither does a majority of portuguese americans. Label “hispanic” http://andrewsullivan.theatlantic.com/the_daily_dish/2009/05/defining-hispanic.html The Census Bureau added the “Hispanic” query at the last minute at the insistence of President Nixon, who astutely saw the large number of Mexican-Americans in his native California as an indicator that Hispanics were becoming an important voting bloc. Today, except at the Library of Congress and the Small Business Administration, the consensus tends to be that Portuguese-Americans are not Hispanic. “I personally do not classify Portuguese under the `Hispanic’ or `Latino’ label, and I would say the majority [of Portuguese-Americans] do not as well,” says Jason Moreira, executive assistant of the Portuguese American Leadership Council of the United States. Stop with the label nonesense and get back to the issues.All supreme court judges should be voted in by the people!! Sonia Sotomayor 2001 lecture at the University of California-Berkeley. Referring to former Justice Sandra Day O’Connor’s saying that “a wise old man and wise old woman will reach the same conclusion in deciding cases,” Sotomayor said, “I would hope that a wise Latina woman with the richness of her experiences would more often than not reach a better conclusion than a white male who hasn’t lived that life.” http://abcnews.go.com/Politics/SCOTUS/story?id=7685284&page=1 Do you not see that quote by her is the real issue?and blog worthy than her being “first hispanic” And because of this my feeling is Republicans and Democrats have failed this country!instead of talking about real issues that effect all LEGAL americans the rats scramble for nonsense topics. http://www.ronpaul.com (one of the last real Americans )limited constitutional government, low taxes, free markets, and a return to sound monetary policies!!!!!
16 posted on 05/27/2009 7:38:09 PM PDT by Not hispanic
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To: donmeaker

I got into a discussion about that with a Hispanic fellow some years ago. He preferred “Ibero-American” to “Latin American.” I think it was because it sounded better rather than what it meant.

In view of the fact that the Iberian peninsula comprises Spain and Portugal, I would say that Brazilians and Mexicans (among others) are both Ibero-Americans.

Our discussion continued. We agreed that Haitians were Latin Americans, but not Ibero-Americans or Hispanics.

I did ask him if Quebec was part of Latin America. He said no. To my mind, if Quebec ever broke away from Canada, it would definitely be Latin American. As is, it’s sort of fuzzy...but I’ll agree it isn’t.


17 posted on 05/28/2009 5:04:28 PM PDT by scrabblehack
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To: scrabblehack

I think that you and I can agree that the more you look at the groups, the less they mean. Are Whites who immigrated from South Africa “African American”? What in common does my friend Pat Kuhne, of german extraction, but from Columbia, with Tony Resco, from Cuba?

It is an exercise in adding apples and oranges, multiplying by watermelons, and dividing by grapes. Little quantitative information is contained in classes.


18 posted on 05/28/2009 8:41:51 PM PDT by donmeaker (Invicto)
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To: The Mayor; NYer; neverdem; NYC GOP Chick; davide; LaserLock; Tabi Katz; AlwaysFree; ...

The first Hispanic U. S. Supreme Court Justice was Benjamin Nathan Cardozo, U. S. Supreme Court Justice from 1932 - 1938, a Sephard Jew of Spanish ancestry.

His father, Judge Albert Cardozo, was Vice President and Trustee of the famous Spanish-Portuguese synagogue in New York City, Congregation Shearith Israel.

Young Benjamin was Bar Mitzvah in that synagogue, and as an adult was proud of both his Jewish and Hispanic heritage.

It is the oldest congregation in the Western Hemisphere, having been founded in Recife, Brazil ca. 1630 and moved to New Amsterdam (now New York City) in 1654. Its present location is at 70th St. and Central Park West. I spent some of my religious and social activity time there as a teenager in the 1950s, when the Rav was the famous Dr. David de Sola Pool.

Most American Jews, who are of Ashkenaz origins, neither know of nor understand this important component of the Jewish people.

Jews were a major component of the populations of Spain and Portugal for 800 years (~ 700 - 1500 CE). Ladino, the “Sephardic Yiddish” based on pre-1500 Spanish, is still spoken by 200,000 Jewish descendants around the world, mainly in Mediterranean regions.

45 of the 50 most common Hispanic family names are of Jewish origin. All Hispanic given names ending in “el” are Hebrew phrases with reference to G-d. Like Gabriel, Emanuel, Rafael, etc.

Many Spanish words and names of places are of Hebrew origin.
If you represented all Jews who were murdered in the Holcoaust by a crowded Dodger Stadium, those Jews whose family names were Gamboa and Graciano would fill a section of box seats.

Gamboas and Gracianos are in Jewish cemeteries all over the world .... even in Poland, Canada, South Africa and Israel.

A recent analysis of the DNA of a 20 statistical sample of men of Spain found that 20% have the Jewish genetic haplogroup, viz. they descend from Jews.

It is estimated that a significant fraction of the Hispanics of the Southwestern USA and Northern Mexico are of Jewish ancestry and don’t know it.

But the media would not think of, nor recognize, Benjamin Cardozo as a “Hispanic”.

They want a “genuine” Hispanic, certainly not one who was also a Jew.


19 posted on 06/07/2009 11:14:33 AM PDT by Coleus (Abortion, Euthanasia & FOCA - - don't Obama and the Democrats just kill ya!)
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To: Kleon

REally? They have the same heritage of Celt-Iberian, Greek and Carthagianian, Roman, and Vandal (German) prior to the Muslim Invasion. They speak similar languages. Portuguese and the Spanish languages like Catalan are all directly related to each other, or through the intermediary of Mozarabic.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mozarabic
Parts of Spain, notable Galicia, speak Portuguese.

This is a little like the Dutch and Belgians whining about being grouped together.


20 posted on 06/07/2009 4:54:44 PM PDT by rmlew ( The SAVE and GIVE acts are institutioning Corvee. Where's the outtrage!)
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