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You started by asserting that morality is absolute; you wind up making a case that would embarrass a first year law student. What you have just argued is that moral laws depend on circumstances so complex and so convoluted that it would take a whole book just to explain when it is permissible to treat another human being as property.

Invalid conclusion. Some issues are quite complex. How does this prove that there is no moral absolute? I invite you take out your bible and read 1Corinthians 2:14, and the entire chapter of Romans 1.

If you don't want to take the time and go read the analysis on the website, then the discussion is over.

Some issues are quite complex.

Yes, like whether owning slaves is OK by God, and whether it's OK to beat them senseless. Really complex. Requires thousands of French intellectuals to work that one out. Good riddance.

Is this what you mean by "Corinthians 2:14"?

But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know [them], because they are spiritually discerned.

I'm curious because I stared at it until I was blue in the face, and nothing about slavery leaped out at me. I assume your reference to Romans is equally a smokescreen, since you didn't quote a verse, and I scanned it quickly without finding anything regarding "chattel" slavery or "bondservant" slavery or plain old vanilla slavery.

Here, by the way, is a fairly comprehensive list of the Old Testament verses that support slavery. Here's from the New. Notice the explicit use of the word "slavery" in the KJV. Also notice some of the more delicate injunctions the lord lays on his chosen people regarding these "bondsmen" and "maidservants" as you so delicately put it. Like legalized rape, and forced circumcision, or the titheing of virgin Midianite slaves captured in war and reserved for the priesthood.