Respectfully, I am going to suppose that you have never considered the possibility that Paul was prophetically referring to the completion of The Written Revelation.
I am not trying to play "gotcha"... but I would ask you to admit, True or False:
You have never even CONSIDERED such a possibility (despite the congruent language of II Timothy 3), because your Teachers have NEVER presented you this idea... Right??
(At the very least, it certainly CANNOT refer to the "Millennial Kingdom" of the Pre-Mills and Post-Mills... with their "thousand year reign" of APOSTASY, HYPOCRISY, REBELLION, AND LIES... among the Tares of the Earth).
At the very least, "When that which is perfect has come" MUST refer to the Amillennial vision of a Final Judgment at the Second Coming, and a perfect New Heaven and a New Earth... no "thousand year reign" of hypocrisy and lies, but PERFECTION.
But if it DOES NOT refer thereto, then you must admit a possibility which you have never even considered: The Completed Revelation of Written Scripture is that which is PERFECT.
True, or False: This is the first time that you have even CONSIDERED this possibility.
Neh???
OP, I think you know better than that. I've heard that interpretation of that scripture for years. You say you're not playing "gotcha"...why don't you be honest? That's exactly what you're trying to do. I'm not going to play that game.
Context is a valuable key to understanding scripture. In 1 Cor. 13:8-10, Paul is talking about the progression of things from immaturity to maturity, equating them with the process of a man growing up. In the previous chapter, Paul spends time on the analogy of the Christian as a part of a body, comparing the workings of the Body of Christ with the workings of our own bodies, detailing the various ways we all have specific and vital functions. In chapter 13, he reveals the "glue" that holds it all together: Love. John wrote that God is Love. Paul shows how Love is what makes the Body work and gives it life. That would be analogous to blood. Nowhere in that passage does he refer to the written Word as being the object of his discourse. Paul then goes on in chapter 14 to set some "rules of decorum" for the outworking of the various gifts given by God for the functioning of the Body of Christ.
My point is, your interpretation of "the Perfect" as being the written Word is not supportable from this passage, and your citing of 2 Tim 3 is not either. The object of 2 Tim 3 is "the man of God". Scripture is given so that the man of God may be perfect.
There are a lot of people who actually worship the Written Word, holding it up as a perfect thing, when it is obvious that the translations are not 100% accurate. I am not disparaging the Written Word, for it is the vehicle through which we learn and come to know God. But the Written Word is not the "Perfect" that Paul refers to. Jesus is Perfect, and His coming will bring with it perfection. That is the significance of Paul saying that now (presently) we see in a glass darkly, but then (when Christ comes) face to face. The Written Word doesn't have a face. Jesus does.
Have you not EVER considered that?