So what is your point with this whole 11th Amendment issue anyway? Is it to show there are some areas that the Supreme Court does not have jurisdiction in, original or appellate? You don't have to go to the 11th Amendment for that. Article III, Section 2 has the clause "...with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make." Are you trying to suggest that the Texas v White decision is illegitimate because of the 11th Amendment? Well that's plain ridiculous. Or are you just wanting to say "Gotcha!!!" If so then go right ahead and enjoy your moment of 'triumph'. I don't imagine you have all that many.
I was merely correcting one of your patently false statements (that "once a state has been allowed to join then the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over all cases in where a state may be a party").
Are you trying to suggest that the Texas v White decision is illegitimate because of the 11th Amendment? Well that's plain ridiculous.
A 'straw man argument,' but that's in keeping with your demonstrated preference for logical fallacies, including endless non sequiturs.
Or are you just wanting to say "Gotcha!!!" If so then go right ahead and enjoy your moment of 'triumph'. I don't imagine you have all that many.
Gosh, Non-Sequitur - most mature adults would not have had a problem with simply correcting their original misstatement (see your Post #298). The fact that you are criticizing me, almost 200 posts later, when it was your error (not mine) suggests that you are anything but a 'mature adult'...
;>)