Based on what rule of law?
Saying otherwise doesn’t pass any commonse sense test whatsoever.
What is common sense in claiming ownership changed hands without the OK of the owner and without compensation?
“Based on what rule of law?”
Your conclusion isn’t based on any law, but I can at least say all lands of a country belong to that country, just like after our revolutionary war. England has no claim to anything here, but according to you they do, or is your anti-Southern bigotry just getting in the way?