“Based on what rule of law?”
Your conclusion isn’t based on any law, but I can at least say all lands of a country belong to that country, just like after our revolutionary war. England has no claim to anything here, but according to you they do, or is your anti-Southern bigotry just getting in the way?
Sure it is. Sumter belonged to the federal government. Only Congress could dispose of it per Article I, Section 8. What rule of law are you relying on?
...but I can at least say all lands of a country belong to that country, just like after our revolutionary war.
Now that's just plain idiotic.
England has no claim to anything here, but according to you they do...
Ownership of any British property not already in Colonial hands was settled by the Treaty of Paris. What similar treaty transferred ownership of Sumter?