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To: Technical Editor

If the 14th changed citizenship into just born and naturalized. Why wasn’t the text of Article II changed to require the president to be a born citizen?


7,221 posted on 08/06/2009 1:09:55 AM PDT by PeaceBeWithYou (De Oppresso Liber! (50 million and counting in Afganistan and Iraq))
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To: PeaceBeWithYou
Consider it similar to Gore trying to claim 'there is no controlling leag authority.' TE is working its little fingers off trying to establish the notion that there is no authority which has established the actual requirements for President. We have others--like Star Traveler--who seek to establish the same notion, just insisting at a different shrillness level.

BTW, when the 14th A was written, it 'statutized' ALL slaves/prior slaves in America and the next generation of their children born on U.S. soil would then be natural born if both aprents were so statutized and the child born on U.S. soil. Rewriting the Pre4sidentail eligibilty requirement was thertefore not necessary, as your sound logic so determined.

7,320 posted on 08/06/2009 9:32:15 AM PDT by MHGinTN (Believing they cannot be deceived, they cannot be convinced when they are deceived.)
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